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Bible Quiz 4
1. Are Christians still to
'tithe' (tenth), as per Old Testament Law? How much should we give to be 'in Christ'? Ans.
2. Did our Lord Jesus Christ
actually Himself drink of the 'cup' of The New Covenant with His disciples at the 'last
supper'? Ans.
3. It is written in 1
Peter 3:18-19 that our Lord Jesus went and 'preached' to the 'spirits in prison' after He
resurrected. One questioner also says, "When I read Dr. Bullinger's slant on this
chapter and verse, he states Christ preached His glorious Salvation to the captive,
disobedient angels from the time of Noah. Not to save, but to proclaim His
victory........kind-of-a rub it in your face thing, I guess (All this from How to
Enjoy the Bible, page 190-191).1 Bullinger goes on to says if this
is translated any other way it would mean a 'second chance' theory."
So what was that event in 1 Peter 3:18-19 of Christ
preaching to the spirits in prison? Ans.
4. What is the
difference between Christ's Body called 'The Church', as compared with 'Israel'? Ans.
Answers:
1. We are not
held to a 'specific' amount when doing 'almsdeeds' in Christ. This giving is a 'spiritual
matter' of our 'heart', between the giver and our Lord.
It is true there was a 'tenth' (tithe), given unto the
Lord, of all their increase dedicated to sacred use (see Gen.14 with Abraham; Gen.28:20-22
with Jacob; Lev.27:30-33; Num.18:21-28, 31; Deut.10; 12; 14; 18, etc.) And that tithing
back then included the coverage of government administration, etc. There was no tax system
yet; no social security, etc. Our Government provides many of those functions now, and...
for most, it's way over a 'tenth'. The Church today is left out of that, so it's up to us
to fulfill the sacred reason for 'tithes', that of providing for God's chosen, and His
Purposes of Righteousness.
It is the 'Spirit' of God's Law on tithing which now
applies for our New Testament example, not a 'hard line' rule or ordinance in the 'have
to' or 'how much' sense. It is set forth in 2 Corinthians Chapters 8 & 9 and 1
Corinthians 16:1-3.
So what is that Spirit of this Law of alms in Christ now?
How does tithing apply now? It is more properly called 'alms' by our Lord
(Matt.6). Let's cover 2 Cor.9 there together:
2 Cor 9:1 For as touching the ministering to the saints,
it is superfluous for me to write to you:
2 For I know the forwardness of your mind, for which I boast of you to
them of Macedonia, that Achaia was ready a year ago; and your zeal hath provoked very
many.
3 Yet have I sent the brethren, lest our boasting of you should be in
vain in this behalf; that, as I said, ye may be ready:
4 Lest haply if they of Macedonia come with me, and find you unprepared,
we (that we say not, ye) should be ashamed in this same confident boasting.
5 Therefore I thought it necessary to exhort the brethren, that they
would go before unto you, and make up beforehand your bounty,
whereof ye had notice before, that the same might be ready, as a matter of bounty, and not
as of covetousness.
Paul is speaking to the Corinthians about how though the
Macedonians being poor, yet they still gave freely for other brethren in need (see
previous 2 Corinthians Chap.8). He's saying he had no need to write them on the importance
of "ministering to the saints", for it should be obvious to those 'in Christ'.
Those brethren had prepared their alms a full year prior to Paul's visit with those who
would carry it back to Jerusalem, to be distributed among the poor brethren there (see
Romans 15:25-28).
2 Cor 9:6 But this I say, He which soweth sparingly
shall reap also sparingly; and he which soweth bountifully shall reap also bountifully.
7 Every man according as he purposeth in his heart, so
let him give; not grudgingly, or of necessity: for God loveth
a cheerful giver.
These two verses 'seal' exactly how, and 'how much' to give.
Notice nothing is said here about a 'tithe', which means 'a tenth'. An analogy of
agricultural 'sowing' is used here by Paul, because it was used in The Old Testament as to
God's blessings on those who seek to do right. Sowing 'sparingly' vs. 'bountifully' is to
let us know that if you 'feel' like giving a lot, your 'heart' leading you, then give
'cheerfully', knowing that it will help serve God's Purpose, and He will still make sure
you have what you need afterwards.
And this act 'in the Spirit' is out of love for our
fellow-brethren, and not done out of feelings of 'necessity' ("grudgingly"
of vs.7), or trying to be within The Law according to a 'tenth' or whatever amount. If we
feel in our 'heart' that we can give more and still be OK with it, then we should do it
'cheerfully', understanding the workings of the Grace of God, and not depending on reward.
In other words, if a 'system' makes one feel that they 'must' give a certain amount, as a
necessity, and it causes a 'grudge', then the 'heart' and Spirit of the meaning is taken
out of the whole act. This is why God's teachers, ministers, should not be beggars. A
tithing box out in the lobby for people to drop an envelope in is more in accordance with
Paul's teaching than those who send out letters of notice to members, keeping track of how
much they give, and bugging them about it. That 'system' is setup as a business, not a
House of God.
I know farmers in my area which help each other in times
of need, one neighbor helping another when they are sick and can't plow the fields, etc.
There is no payment involved, though it is usually always offered. Most will not take it.
And when that other farmer needs help, the one who recovered from sickness will go and
take care of work on their farm when in need, and without the feeling of a 'payback' or
anything of that manner. It's done because others have a genuine "need". The
help can be in many different matters; money, food, clothing, odd-jobs, etc., depending on
one's skills. When our People see someone in 'need', most just act on instinct, with God
putting His Laws in their 'hearts' (Hebrews 8:8-10). And we should seek to help our
brethren 'in Christ' especially, for they have a Mission separate from the non-believer.
But anyone truly 'in need' is not to be shunned.
Now go back to 2 Cor.8:
2 Cor 8:7 Therefore, as ye abound in every thing, in
faith, and utterance, and knowledge, and in all diligence, and in your love to us, see
that ye abound in this grace also.
8 I speak not by commandment, but by occasion of the
forwardness of others, and to prove the sincerity of your love.
"This
grace" Paul is speaking of here is this matter of 'giving' alms, as shown at the
start of this Chapter 8 also. Just as those in Christ 'abound' in faith, teaching,
knowledge, diligence, and love, so we should 'abound' in giving alms also. And notice
verse 8 that Paul was not speaking "by commandment", but we do this
grace out of love for others, and love in Christ. This means no man, no Church 'system',
can with authority set a certain amount on a member to give in tithes. This matter is of 'the
heart' now, not of a hard-rule Law, as in the Old Testament. It is now of the
'Spirit' of the Law. It is between the giver and God. (See Acts 5 where certain ones sold
a property, vowing to give it as alms, yet held back part of the profit. They didn't sin
against the people [church, i.e. 'gathering', ekklesia], they sinned against
God.)
2 Cor 8:11 Now therefore perform the doing of it; that
as there was a readiness to will, so there may be a performance also out of that which ye
have.
12 For if there be first a willing mind, it is accepted
according to that a man hath, and not according to that he hath not.
13 For I mean not that other men be eased, and ye burdened:
This giving is according to what we have, meaning 'abundance' which we really could
'spare', for others who have a genuine 'need'. It is not according to what we "hath
not", or don't have in order to give. God does not want our family or children to
starve or do without the basic necessities. Verse 13 is clear that those false teachers
who beg for alms, and then buy a great big ol' fancy car, swimming pool, etc., while the
givers even give what they 'don't have', doing without necessities, is against the Spirit.
2 Cor 8:14 But by an equality, that now at this
time your abundance may be a supply for their want, that their abundance also may be a
supply for your want: that there may be equality:
15 As it is written, He that had gathered much had nothing over; and he
that had gathered little had no lack.
The
whole purpose for giving is a matter of 'sharing' our 'abundance', with those who have a
real need. And in times when we are need, they share their 'abundance' with us. Verse 15
is Paul quoting from Exod.16:18 about gathering the Heavenly 'manna'. It was
written to gather only the amount which was needed. Even those who had gathered much,
disobeying God then, still had nothing left over. Some were severely punished. They were
not allowed to store that 'manna'. So God seeks an equality between us as
children in Christ. Well does this 'equality' mean if you've got a nice home stereo
system, and someone else does not, you should go out and buy them one? Not necessarily;
use common sense. What if one in genuine 'need' doesn't have a coat for the winter, nor
food for the family?
2 Cor 9:8 And God is able to make all grace abound
toward you; that ye, always having all sufficiency in all things, may abound to every good
work:
9 (As it is written, He hath dispersed abroad; he hath given to the
poor: his righteousness remaineth for ever.
10 Now he that ministereth seed to the sower both minister bread for
your food, and multiply your seed sown, and increase the fruits of your righteousness;)
11 Being enriched in every thing to all bountifulness, which causeth
through us thanksgiving to God.
12 For the administration of this service not only supplieth the want of
the saints, but is abundant also by many thanksgivings unto God;
SUMMARY:
As according to Paul's teaching here, give from 'your heart', not
according to a set amount. But don't extend yourself where you or your loved ones are in
genuine 'need', though even that is according to your 'faith' in God to re-supply you with
your need (Mark 12:41-44). This is an act between YOU and GOD. It 'ain't' nobody else's
business, period.
Each person has different needs in service to our Father.
God will only give you what you can take care of. If one can't give anything because they
or their family is in great 'need', then the ministers should come to them to offer help
obviously, and the needy shouldn't be looked upon, or treated as second class citizens in
the matter either (how does someone poor sitting in Church feel when the 'plate' is passed
to them, and they don't have much to put in?). So 'almsdeeds' is a spiritual matter, not
one in the 'keeping of Law' sense.
Matt 6:1 Take heed that ye do not your alms before men,
to be seen of them: otherwise ye have no reward of your Father Which is in heaven.
2 Therefore when thou doest thine alms, do not sound a trumpet before
thee, as the hypocrites do in the synagogues and in the streets, that they may have glory
of men. Verily I say unto you, They have their reward.
3 But when thou doest alms, let not thy left hand know what thy right
hand doeth:
4 That thine alms may be in secret: and thy Father Which seeth in secret
Himself shall reward thee openly.
(back)
2. At the time of year which we as Christians remember our Lord's days of
deliverance and crucifixion, a teaching about the Passover feast is at times presented
with the act by our Lord Jesus giving His disciples the Holy Sacraments of Communion (Luke
22). The 'Cup' our Lord offered is His Body and our Communion with Him, remembering His
sacrifice upon the cross for the redemption of our sins, His Blood shed for us.
The Israelite Passover feast was that time of our Lord's
Last Supper He held with His disciples. So the old 'ritual' dogma of the Passover feast is
sometimes taught in relation to how Christ Jesus gave us The New Covenant of His Blood,
with the Bread and the Wine.
The following paragraph was presented as Christian Doctrine
by certain ones, and represents a 'false doctrine', alluding that our Lord Jesus drank
from the same 'cup' as what He gave to His disciples, to 'seal' The New Covenant. Read it
'very' carefully:
"Wine was used at
several points in The Passover meal. It is believed that Jesus chose the third cup of
wine...known as the cup of redemption. He did not drink the fourth cup of consummation,
but pledged that redemption would be consummated at that future messianic banquet when He
drinks it anew in the kingdom of God."
That paragraph, with the remark, "It is believed that Jesus chose the third cup
of wine...known as the cup of redemption. He did not drink the fourth cup...",
is a bit tricky, but it assumes Jesus did drink of the 'third cup of wine' of redemption.
And we know what 'redemption' means don't we? It means The New Covenant of His Blood;
Christ's Blood shed for us. That's what the cup our Lord offered to His disciples at the
last supper represents (Luke 22:20). For our Lord to also partake of it would be to admit
He was not worthy to take our sins away, that He needed it also. That's false doctrine of
devils friend, anyway you look at it!
I will not reveal the author of that paragraph, they know
who they are. I also heard this false doctrine presented on a Christian radio broadcast
preparing for Easter holidays. Let's read our Lord's Words from Luke 22 and compare It
with that paragraph:
Luke
22:16 For I say unto you, I will not any more eat thereof, until
it be fulfilled in the kingdom of God.
17 And He took the cup, and gave thanks, and said, 'Take this, and
divide it among yourselves:
18 For I say unto you, I will not drink of the fruit of
the vine, until the kingdom of God shall come.'
19 And He took bread, and gave thanks, and brake it, and gave
unto them, saying, 'This is My body which is given for you: this do in remembrance of Me.'
20 Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, "This
cup is the new testament in My blood, which is shed for you."
There were three separate suppers our Lord partook of during the Passover days (see Companion
Bible Appendixes 156 and 157). This supper here in Luke 22; Mark 14;
Matt.26, was the 'last' supper, before His being delivered up to be crucified. And the
last supper event is the only mention of more than one 'cup', as noted above.
Jesus DID NOT drink of it with His disciples there! He
gave it to HIS DISCIPLES, commanding THEM to drink of it. This is the 'main' point of
these verses, for that 'cup' and 'bread' represent The New Covenant of His BODY. This is
VERY IMPORTANT. Especially note Luke 22:18 & 22:16. Regardless of whether our Lord did
actually eat and drink anything at the Passover with His disciples, with that New Covenant
Commandment of observance, He set forth a remembrance of Him for all Christians to hold
still today, called Holy Communion. So let no man tell you He ate and drank of that part,
or cup, along with His disciples. He did not.
That paragraph referenced is about the traditions of
Passover meal. That author is 'speculating', with the phrase "it is believed that
Jesus chose...". That author is also applying the 'cups' to dispensational times of
Christ's Kingdom (see Companion Bible Appendix #140, about the "Gospel
of The Kingdom"). Our Lord conquered 'Death' for us, but His Kingdom is still 'expecting'
until His enemies be made His footstool (Hebrews 10:12-19). That's when Jesus will
actually 'drink' with His disciples in His Kingdom, at His Second Advent as KING OF KINGS
AND LORD OF LORDS (Rev.11; Rev.20). We as being 'in Christ' look forward to that Day of
The Lord, His thousand year reign on earth. That's when we will drink and eat with Him. To
'consummate' means to complete a 'contract', make due, or make good, in final. With a
marriage, it is consummated when the husband goes in the 'tent' to his wife, and they
become 'one'. That consummation applies spiritually with Christ The Bridegroom, and His
Bride, The Church, i.e. Body of Christ.
But our Lord didn't teach about His selecting from among a
group of 'cups', drinking from some, and not others. That's bogus. As per Luke 22, He gave
His disciples to drink from two cups, one during the Passover meal, and one after, to
represent the New Covenant. But our Lord drank of neither. His 'cup' which He was to drink
of, was a metaphor for the suffering upon the cross to fulfill His Mission for the first
Advent as Savior. Our Lord drank from a SPECIAL spiritual cup which was meant for Him
only. Two people per Matt.20:20-24 with Zebedee's children, asked 'unknowingly' to suffer
like Christ did. They really didn't know what our Lord's 'cup' was about, otherwise they
wouldn't have agreed with "we are able", after Jesus had asked them if
they were able to drink of HIS 'cup' (Matt.20:22). I think we know better than to ask that
which the mother of Zebedee did, do we not?
So our Lord did NOT drink of that author's so stated
"third cup of wine...known as the cup of redemption" either! If He had, wouldn't
that have made the 'cup' of The New Covenant void and null if He partook also? It sure
would, because the 'victim' of Old Testament sacrifice was required to be killed, blood
spilled for atonement and the Passover. Our Lord Jesus Christ was in place of the animal
'victim' of sacrifice. He became our Passover Lamb sacrificed for us (1 Cor.5:7). Can a
'victim' also partake of its own BLOOD in sacrifice? That's what Christ would be doing IF
He had drank of that 'cup' along with His disciples.
The main 'hinge point' of being 'in Christ' is to never
deny Him as God's Role of Savior, Emmanuel, "God with us."
(Matt.1:23). That also means knowing and understanding Christ's Role as Savior as given by
God from Genesis through Revelation. If ANY doctrine, absolutely ANY, teaches ANYTHING
which pulls down Christ Jesus' Role as Savior, our New Covenant sacrificed for us, or...
tries to put 'man' on an equal 'par' with our Lord Christ Jesus, then they work for the
'wicked one', either knowingly, or in ignorance.
The following verses of 1 John 4:1-3 do not mean,
"Well that teacher says they believe Christ is The Son of God, so they must be of
God." Not so fast.... If one believes they can become 'like' Christ, or be 'a
Christ', or claim any 'role' our Lord Jesus performed or held, then they are NOT of God.
It's as simple as that. And the false ones will detract from Christ Jesus while building
themselves up in His place, and all the while 'claiming' to believe on Jesus as The Son of
God, just to fool you. So the denying of Jesus of Nazareth as The Christ can come hidden
in many forms and fashions. That paragraph quoted is just one of them, with the
"fourth cup" thing.
I Jn 4:1 Beloved,
believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false
prophets are gone out into the world.
2 Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that
Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the
flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it
should come; and even now already is it in the world.
(back)
3. That word 'preached' in 1 Peter 3:19 is the same Greek word
'kerusso' translated as to 'preach' The Gospel all throughout the New
Testament. Question: when The Gospel is preached, does It ONLY proclaim Christ's Victory
over Satan, and that's all there is to It? Of course not.
When Christ's Gospel is 'preached', Salvation is offered
along with it. Bullinger, though he was an excellent Christian scholar, was on the
pre-tribulational "secret rapture" boat 'theory', and even held the 'tradition' that those 'asleep' in Christ are
waiting it out in the ground somewhere (see Bullinger's work How To Enjoy The Bible).
To think the flesh will be re-united with the spirit is an insult to Christ's
resurrection, and a doctrine of the false one, as Paul even stated, "...flesh and
blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor.15:50). So even an excellent
scholar of The Word cannot also be deceived? Yes. Paul, before he was directly
converted by Christ was one such example also. He was one of the best Hebrew Bible
scholars of his day, but he lacked The Holy Spirit as Guide to properly understand The
Word.
Bullinger, with all his learning, just got 'sucked' into a
false doctrine which is countered in many areas of The Word, Eccl.12 for one; Luke 16 for
another, and Rev.19 & 21 with what the angel said to John, about being of his brethren
the prophets. Bullinger also thought the 'resurrection' is postponed until Christ returns.
Nope. Those who die today, resurrect, going to either side in Heaven, as Luke 16 is our
example by Christ's teaching. Many think the story about Lazarus and the rich man of Luke
16 is a parable. It is not. The same also have a problem understanding Christ's simple
explanation to His disciples of the 'parable of the tares of the field' in Matthew 13.
The following Scriptures are about Christ Jesus' first
Advent as Messiah Savior, offering us The New Covenant:
Isa
42:5 Thus saith GOD the LORD, He That created the heavens, and stretched them
out; He That spread forth the earth, and that which cometh out of it; He That giveth
breath unto the people upon it, and spirit to them that walk therein:
6 "I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold
thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the
People, for a light of the Gentiles;
7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the
prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison
house.
Question: Which people have evangelized a 'light' unto the Gentiles, preaching
Christ's Gospel to all who would receive It? Has it been the non-believing Jews? No. The
Apostles of Christ and then the Western Christian Nations have been the heraldic
proclaimers of Christ Jesus, The 'Light' also offered to the Gentiles. So even back in
Isaiah, God spoke of His Salvation Gospel to be offered as a Covenant to His People, i.e.
the scattered remnants of all twelve tribes of Israel, and then The Gospel would be
preached by them...to the Gentiles.
So the next verse 7, is when Christ preached to the
spirits in prison. And not all those in prison were of the fallen angels in chains.
Isa
61:1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon Me; because the LORD hath anointed Me
to preach good tidings unto the meek; He hath sent Me to bind up the brokenhearted, to
proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that
are bound;
To
proclaim 'liberty' is to declare The Gospel of Salvation, not just a 'Victory'
over Satan. The 'prison' was opened for some, meaning those who accepted Christ's
Victory when He proclaimed It. Why would the prison (pit) be opened if some were
not to be led out? Not all in Satan's prison were bound in the same manner as the
fallen angels. The false tradition of man, that none born flesh who have died go to Heaven
just yet, causes the error of thinking that these 'spirits in prison' were all 'fallen
angels' of Jude 1. They were not all fallen angels, but those similar to the 'rich man' of
Luke 16, who either didn't have the 'chance' to hear The Gospel before they died, or
refused Him before our Lord fulfilled His Mission upon the cross.
(Hint about Lazarus being in Abraham's bosom in the story
of Luke 16: Abraham represents the 'flesh' father of The Salvation Promise through Christ
Jesus. That Lazarus was carried into Abraham's bosom in Heaven by the angels, it showed
Lazarus 'believed' in That Promise given by God through Abraham (Gen.12;17; John 8:56-58).
And that, even though Christ hadn't been born flesh yet. Thus, as Paul would teach in
Galatians 3, all believers on Christ Jesus The Promised Savior, are children of Abraham,
regardless of nationality or race.)
Isa
49:8 Thus saith the LORD, "In an acceptable time have I heard Thee, and
in a day of salvation have I helped Thee: and I will preserve Thee, and give Thee for a
covenant of the People, to establish the earth, to cause to inherit the desolate
heritages;
9 That Thou mayest say to the prisoners, 'Go
forth;' to them that are in darkness, 'Shew yourselves.'
They shall feed in the ways, and their pastures shall be in all high places.
Not
only was the 'prison' of hell opened for those who believed on Christ when He preached to
them during His resurrection, but our Lord told those to "Go forth"!
That means leave it. But to the fallen angels, who are still reserved in chains, our Lord
said to them, "Shew yourselves." Bullinger's idea of Christ showing
them His Victory only, might apply with that "Shew yourselves." But not
with "Go forth" (Hebrew 'yatsah', meaning 'to go
(causatively, bring) out', Strong's no. 3318).
Zech 9:9 Rejoice
greatly, O daughter of Zion; shout, O daughter of Jerusalem: behold, thy King cometh unto
thee: He is just, and having salvation; lowly, and riding upon an ass, and upon a
colt the foal of an ass.
10 And I will cut off the chariot from Ephraim, and the horse from
Jerusalem, and the battle bow shall be cut off: and He shall speak peace unto the heathen:
and His dominion shall be from sea even to sea, and from the river even
to the ends of the earth.
11 As for thee also, by the blood of thy covenant I have sent
forth thy prisoners out of the pit wherein is no water.
If
you'll remember Luke 16 about the 'rich man', he asked Abraham across a "great
gulf fixed", to allow Lazarus to come over and drip water on his tongue, to cool
his torment. So make no mistake, this 'pit' is the abode across the 'great
gulf fixed' in Heaven, opposite of God's side called Paradise (Greek for 'Eden').
Luke 4:18 "The Spirit of the LORD is upon Me,
because He hath anointed Me to preach the gospel to the poor; He hath sent Me to heal the
brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the
blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
19 To preach the acceptable year of the LORD."
How
did an excellent Christian scholar, such as Dr. Bullinger miss all these examples for
Christ's preaching to the spirits in prison, with some (i.e., believers) being delivered
out? Well, if one wants to cling to this old flesh, refusing to believe the full Truth of
what the 'resurrection' into the spiritual body is, then they will not understand the
spiritual dimension of Heaven; a Heaven of 'now', not just later at Christ's second
coming. Even as our Lord Jesus said of our Heavenly Father in Mark 12:27, "He is
not the God of the dead, but the God of the living:..."
Paul also explained in 1 Thess.4:15 that we which are
alive in the flesh at Christ's coming shall not 'prevent' ('precede' in the Greek
with 'phthano') those who are already 'asleep'. Since the start of this flesh
age, all who have left this earth, putting off their flesh body at death, have gone to
Heaven. Do you want to go to Heaven? You do? But to which side is the question I ask? For
even Satan and his angels are cast out of Heaven to the earth per Revelation 12:
Rev
12:7 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels
fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels,
8 And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in
heaven.
9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called
the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and
his angels were cast out with him.
(back)
4. This is an important question, since too many take for granted that
God's Israel and Christ's Church are somehow separate.
Since Dr. Bullinger was mentioned in the last question,
let's cover another doctrine from his work How To Enjoy The Bible, about the
difference between The Church and Israel.
On pages 149-155 of that same work, Bullinger separated
Christ's believers into two subgroups, The Church as compared with Israel. He goes into an
essay that Christ's Body of members cannot be separated, with one group experiencing the
tribulation, and another group of members being taken out. Yet, he does just that with
contrasting Israel against Christ's Body of The Church. He obviously didn't understand how
most of the 'house of Israel' migrated out from the Assyrian captivity to form the Western
Christian Nations of today. Bullinger then goes on to do a type of 're-unite' of The
Church with Israel in Christ's Kingdom later, under the Eternal Israel.2 (see the Lost Tribes study to really understand all this).
This doctrine of creating a separation between God's True
Israel vs. The Church, has caused many to believe they are apart, when it is the
non-believing sons of Israel who have parted from True Spiritual Israel, i.e. God's
Israel, which is His Body, and not any particular geographical area. The Church, or
Christ's Body, represents those believers on Christ of both Jew and Gentile, per Romans 2.
To receive Christ Jesus as Savior today, is to inherit the Salvation Promise God gave
through Abraham, to Isaac, then to Jacob, who was named Israel by our
Heavenly Father. All believers on Christ Jesus thus become children of Abraham through
'faith', from both Jew and Gentile, and become inheritors of that Salvation Promise in
Christ Jesus (Gal.3; 4; Romans 9; Rom.4; Gen.12; 17).
Moreover, that new Name God gave to Jacob, that Name 'Israel',
became the Name of The Salvation Promise through Christ Jesus as Savior. For that word 'Israel',
'Yisra'el' in the Hebrew means "God prevails", or "to
prevail with God" (Strong's nos. 8280; 410; 3478). That's exactly what Jacob
did; he 'prevailed' with God's help (Gen.32). And that word 'Israel' represents the
Salvation Promise, first given to Abraham by 'faith', believing on The Lord Jesus Christ
as Savior (John 8:56). Thusly, True Israel IS The Body of Christ's believers, of all
nations, of all peoples. They cannot be separate, and are not.
One view of the "secret rapture" doctrine by some, is that the
endtime tribulation is upon 'Israel', but not 'The Church'. Thus they believe, and teach,
that Israel will be left behind, while The Church is raptured out. But in God's Word, The
Church (Body of Christ), is 'Israel'. That word 'church' means 'a congregation', in the
'gathering' sense. The word 'church' (ekklesia in the Greek), merely means "a
popular meeting, a religious assembly". It's just a word applied to the Body of
Christ's believers. But the word 'Israel' is applied to God's Kingdom under Christ
(Rev.21; 7; Hebrews 8; Gal.6:15-16; Rom.9:6-8; John 12:13; John 1:49; Luke 22:29-30; Luke
1:68; Matt.19:28).
Many "secret rapture" folks truly think God's 'Israel' of today,
are all non-believing Jews. They haven't understood who, or where, God's True Israel is
today. The Lost Tribes studies help reveal that wherever The
Birthright blessings God gave to Abraham, then to Isaac, then to Jacob (named 'Israel'),
and then to Joseph, and finally to Joseph's two sons of Ephraim and Manasseh, then that's
where God's True Israel is today. What? Never heard that before? Then you haven't been
properly taught God's Word, for It is all written.
Those ignorant of God's True Israel today, cause their
deception to become greater, as they do not apply endtime prophecy upon today's True
Israel as Christ's Body, but to non-believing Jews and the middleast nation 'called'
Israel only. "Well, all that latter day stuff is meant to happen upon Jerusalem and
Israel," they might say. "Well, I'm not part of Israel; I'm part of The Church,
so I'm not going to be here for Satan's tribulation," they would utter. The matter of
importance from God's Word is, that the Western Christian Nations of today are descended
from the 'house of Israel', and are most definitely True Israel. The
'house of Judah' are mistook for being True Israel today, and most of those in the Holy
Land nation called 'Israel' in name only, do not even accept Jesus of Nazareth as Christ
Messiah, our Savior. They haven't understood that 'Israel' is The NAME of The Salvation
Promise of 'faith', which God gave through Abraham, and was fulfilled by Christ Jesus upon
the cross. So to our Heavenly Father, 'True Israel' is where the majority are who accept
His Promise of Salvation, being in Christ Jesus. So just 'where' would that majority be
located today? Where are the "ten thousands" of Ephraim, and the
"thousands" of Manasseh? (Deut.33:17).
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Footnotes:
1 How To Enjoy The
Bible, by E. W. Bullinger. (Kregel Publications, Grand Rapids, MI.), Reprint of 1916
4th ed., 1990, pp. 190-191.
2 Ibid.,
pp. 149-155.
All references to "Strong's nos." are
from Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, PC Study Bible, Biblesoft, 1993-1996.
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